NR 661 Hematology 1 to 60
- An African American male complains of pain in his back and trunk. He is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. He is probably:
- Correct Answer: About 65 years old (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Multiple myeloma is most common in older adults, typically around the age of 65.
- Which statement is true about vitamin B12?
- Correct Answer: Inadequate amounts can produce cognitive changes (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to neurological issues, including cognitive impairments.
- A patient has had an allergic reaction to seafood with anaphylaxis 48 hours ago. Which white cell will probably be abnormal?
- Correct Answer: Eosinophils (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Eosinophils are often elevated in allergic reactions, especially those involving anaphylaxis.
- What statement is true about anemia in older adults?
- Correct Answer: Anemia may have more than one origin and co-exist in older adults (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Anemia in older adults often has multiple causes, such as chronic disease and nutritional deficiencies.
- Thalassemia minor can be recognized by:
- Correct Answer: Microcytic, hypochromic red cells (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Thalassemia minor typically presents with small (microcytic) and pale (hypochromic) red blood cells.
- Lead toxicity can be associated with:
- Correct Answer: Sideroblastic anemia (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Lead toxicity can interfere with hemoglobin production, leading to sideroblastic anemia.
- A 28-year-old female patient reports fatigue for the past 4-6 weeks. Based on her most likely diagnosis, she will receive an oral supplement as treatment for her anemia. For best absorption, it should be taken:
- Correct Answer: On an empty stomach (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Iron supplements are best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, as food can inhibit absorption.
- An older adult has suspected vitamin B12 deficiency. Which of the following lab indices is more indicative of a vitamin B12 deficiency?
- Correct Answer: Macrocytosis (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Macrocytosis (enlarged red blood cells) is a common sign of vitamin B12 deficiency.
- A patient with pernicious anemia may be observed to have:
- Correct Answer: Glossitis (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Pernicious anemia often presents with glossitis, an inflammation of the tongue.
- What diagnosis is likely based on this patient’s laboratory values?
- Correct Answer: Pernicious anemia (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Pernicious anemia is characterized by specific lab findings, including low vitamin B12 levels and macrocytosis
- A patient is found to have anemia. What term is used to describe the patient’s MCH in this CBC?
- Correct Answer: Normochromic (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Normochromic refers to red blood cells that have a normal concentration of hemoglobin, which is typical in certain types of anemia.
- A 20-year-old student has an MMR titer that demonstrates an unprotective titer for rubella. She is HIV positive. Her CD4 cell count is unknown. Which statement is true?
- Correct Answer: She is at risk for MMR but should not be immunized (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Immunization with live vaccines like MMR is contraindicated in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those with low CD4 counts.
- The following lab values most likely indicate what type of anemia?
- Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anemia (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Iron deficiency anemia typically presents with low hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin levels, along with microcytosis and hypochromia.
- A 26-year-old female has thalassemia minor. What should be limited in her diet to avoid hepatotoxicity?
- Correct Answer: Multivitamin with iron (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Iron overload can be harmful in individuals with thalassemia minor, leading to liver damage, so iron supplementation should be avoided.
- A measure of the degree of variation in red cell size is indicated by:
- Correct Answer: RDW (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Red cell distribution width (RDW) is a measurement of the variability in the size of red blood cells.
- A serum ferritin level:
- Correct Answer: Demonstrates the amount of iron in storage (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Ferritin is a protein that stores iron, and its levels in the blood indicate the amount of iron stored in the body.
- A patient is being treated for iron deficiency anemia. Iron is better absorbed:
- Correct Answer: On an empty stomach (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Taking iron supplements on an empty stomach enhances absorption, though it may cause gastrointestinal discomfort in some patients.
- A patient had a splenectomy after an automobile accident 3 months ago. Patients who are asplenic are:
- Correct Answer: More susceptible to bacterial infection (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: The spleen plays a crucial role in fighting bacterial infections, and its absence increases the risk of infection.
- A patient is found to have an anemia. What term is used to describe this patient’s MCV?
- Correct Answer: Normocytic (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Normocytic anemia refers to anemia with normal-sized red blood cells, which can occur in chronic diseases.
- A 75-year-old adult asks for the pneumonia vaccine. His immunization record indicates that he had one at age 65 and another a year later. What is the recommendation of the CDC about how the NP should handle his request?
- Correct Answer: Do not revaccinate this patient at this time (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: The CDC recommends not revaccinating older adults if they have already received the appropriate pneumonia vaccines unless specific conditions warrant it.
- A 75-year-old male patient has been in poor health for a decade. Which type of anemia is LEAST likely in this patient?
- Correct Answer: Sideroblastic anemia (correct answer in bracket).
- Explanation: Sideroblastic anemia is less common in older adults and usually arises from congenital or acquired causes, often unrelated to general poor health.
- A 50-year-old female presents to your clinic with symptoms of fatigue over the past 1-2 months. Preliminary labs have been performed. What should the NP do next?
- Correct Answer: Prescribe an iron supplement (correct answer in bracket).